The limma User's Guide says on p. 62 that the parameter (s_0)^2
is the mean of the inverse chi-squared prior for the true residual variances (sigma_g)^2
. However, if I get
Smyth, G. K. (2004). Linear Models and Empirical Bayes Methods for Assessing Differential Expression in Microarray Experiments. Statistical Applications in Genetics and Molecular Biology, 3(1), 1–25. https://doi.org/10.2202/1544-6115.1027
correctly (more precisely: section 3 (p. 6 bottom)), the prior for the (sigma_g)^2
is rather a scaled inverse chi-squared distribution with scaling parameter (s_0)^2
. In that case, the mean is d_0 * (s_0)^2 / (d_0 - 2)
(see Wikipedia). So my question is: Am I right that the correct mean for the prior of the (sigma_g)^2
is d_0 * (s_0)^2 / (d_0 - 2)
and not (s_0)^2
?
Thank you for your answer that I understand in the way that the limma User's Guide is wrong. Your answer doesn't say that my formula for the prior mean of the
(sigma_g)^2
is wrong and the corrected version of the publication still contains the scaled inverse chi-squared distribution as the prior for the(sigma_g)^2
(see p.8 at the top). So I guess that my formulad_0 * (s_0)^2 / (d_0 - 2)
is correct. But correct me if I am wrong.The published paper is exactly correct and is already as clear as I can make it. I have nothing more to add.
It is not my responsibility to comment on all the probability calculations you make. The prior mean of sigma^2 is not relevant to limma, for the reasons I already explained.